He was the first major historian of the region,writing circa 500 B.C. he is considered highly reliable by contemporary historians. He refers to Egypt,Phoenicia,Syria and Palestine. But not a single reference to Hebrews,Jews or any alleged "Israel". How do we square that with "historical" accounts that purport to be Divinely Inspired? But for which there is apparently no historical evidence whatsoever?
No comments:
Post a Comment